[MCQS] KRITI Publication Computer Science All Chapters

UNIT 1: Database Management System (DBMS)

 

Question 1: The key that uniquely identifies each record is called:

a. Primary Key

b. Key Record

c. Unique Key

d. Field Name

 

Question 2: A data dictionary is a repository that manages

a. Memory

b. Metadata

c. Spell Checker

d. Data Validator

 

Question 3: Which of the following is generally used for performing tasks like creating the structure of the relations, deleting relation?

a. DML(Data Manipulation Language)

b. Query

c. Relational Schema

d. DDL(Data Definition Language)  

 

Question 4: A Database Management System is a type of software

a. It is a type of system software

b. It is a kind of application software

c. It is a kind of general software

d. Both A and C  

 

Question 5: Which of the following refers to the level of data abstraction that describes exactly how the data actually stored?

a. Conceptual Level

b. Physical Level

c. File Level

d. Logical Level  

 

Question 6: In general, a file is basically a collection of all related

a. Rows & Columns

b. Fields

c. Database

d. Records

 

Question 7: The term "Data" refers to:

a. The electronic representation of the information (or data)

b. Basic information

c. Raw facts and figures

d. Both A and C

 

Question 8: The term "SQL" stands for

a. Standard query language

b. Sequential query language

c. Structured query language

d. Server-side query language  

 

Question 9: An ______________ is a set of entities of the same type that share the same properties, or attributes.

a. Entity set

b. Attribute set

c. Relation set

d. Entity model  

 

Question 10: Which of the following gives a logical structure of the database graphically?

a. Database diagram

b. Entity diagram

c. Architectural representation

d. Entity-Relationship diagram

 

Question 11: The entity relationship is represented in E-R diagram as

a. Undivided rectangles

b. Dashed lines

c. Diamond

d. Double diamonds

 

Question 12: In the ______________ normal form, a composite attribute is converted to individual attributes.

a. First

b. Second

c. Third

d. Fourth

 

Question 13: A table is on the many sides of a one to many or many to many relationships must:

a. Be in Second Normal Form (2NF)

b. Be in Third Normal Form (3NF)

c. Have a single attribute key

d. Have a composite key  

 

Question 14: Tables in second normal form (2NF):

a. Eliminate all hidden dependencies

b. Eliminate the possibility of a insertion anomalies

c. Have a composite key

d. Have all non-key fields depend on the whole primary key  

 

Question 15: Which one of the following statements about normal forms is FALSE?

a. BCNF is stricter than 3 NF

b. Lossless, dependency -preserving decomposition into 3 NF is always possible

c. Loss less, dependency - preserving decomposition into BCNF is always possible

d. Any relation with two attributes is BCNF  

 

Question 16: Functional Dependencies are the types of constraints that are based on ______________.

a. Key

b. Key revisited

c. Superset key

d. None of the mentioned  

 

Question 17: Which is a bottom-up approach to database design that design by examining the relationship between attributes:

a. Functional dependency

b. Database modelling

c. Normalization

d. Decomposition  

 

Question 18: Which forms simplifies and ensures that there are minimal data aggregates and repetitive groups:

a. 1NF

b. 2NF

c. 3NF

d. All of the mentioned  

 

Question 19: Which forms are based on the concept of functional dependency:

a. 1NF

b. 2NF

c. 3NF

d. 4NF

 

Question 20: A distributed database is a collection of data which belong ______________ to the same system but are spread over the ______________ of the network.

a. Logically, sites

b. Physically, sites

c. Database, DBMS

d. None of the above  

 

Question 21: In a distributed Database reduction of redundancy is obtained by ______________.

a. Data fragmentation

b. Data Replication

c. Data Sharing

d. None of the above  

 

Question 22: Which of the following is/are the main goals of a distributed database?

a. Interconnection of database

b. Incremental growth

c. Reduced communication overhead

d. All of the above  

 

Question 23: The server process that implements lock manager functionality, is called

a. Server Processes

b. Database Writer Process

c. Manager processes

d. Lock Manager Processes

 

Question 24: Storing a separate copy of the database at multiple locations is which of the following?

a. Data Replication

b. Horizontal Partitioning

c. Vertical Partitioning

d. Vertical Partitioning  

 

Question 25: Which of the following is a group of one or more attributes that uniquely identifies a row?

a. Key

b. Determinant

c. Tuple

d. Relation  

 

Question 26: A relationship is considered a:

a. Column

b. one-dimensional table

c. two-dimensional table

d. three-dimensional table

 

UNIT 2: Data Communication and Networking

 

Question 1: A computer network permits sharing of ______________.

a. Resources

b. Information

c. Both a and b

d. None of these

 

Question 2: ______________ is a network that connect sites that are in different locations.

a. LAN

b. MAN

c. WAN

d. None of these

 

Question 3: The technology that connects the computers and people within a small area is called ______________.

a. LAN

b. MAN

c. WAN

d. None of these

 

Question 4: ______________ is a network that covers geographic areas that are larger than a district or city.

a. LAN

b. MAN

c. WAN

d. None of these

 

Question 5: Which of the following is a collection of point-to-point links that may form a circle?

a. Bus Topology

b. Ring Topology

c. Mesh Topology

d. Star Topology

 

Question 6: Which protocol layer uses the protocols are WWW, HTTP, FTP, SMTP, e-mail, etc.?

a. Application Layer Protocol

b. Transport Layer Protocol

c. Internet Layer Protocol

d. None of these  

 

Question 7: Why was the OSI model developed?

a. Manufacturers disliked the TCP/IP protocol suite

b. The rate of data transfer was increasing exponentially

c. Standards were needed to allow any two systems to communicate

d. None of the above  

 

Question 8: Devices may be arranged in ______________ topology.

a. Mesh

b. Ring

c. Bus

d. All of the above

 

Question 9: The OSI model shows how the network functions of a computer ought to be organized.

a. CCITT

b. ISO

c. OSI

d. ANSI

 

Question 10: A ______________ is a collection of data among all the networking networks.

a. forum

b. standard

c. protocol

d. None of these

 

Question 11: The ______________ is the physical path over which a message travels.

a. protocol

b. medium

c. signal

d. None of these

 

Question 12: OSI model has ______________ layers.

a. five

b. six

c. seven

d. eight

 

Question 13: In OSI model what is the main function of the transport layer?

a. Node-to-node delivery

b. process-to-process message delivery

c. synchronization

d. routing and maintenance of routing tables  

 

Question 14: The ______________ is the layer in the OSI model encryption and decryption are handled by the layer.

a. transport

b. session

c. presentation

d. application

 

Question 15: Frequency of failure and network recovery time after a failure are measures of the ______________ of a network.

a. performance

b. reliability

c. security

d. feasibility  

 

Question 16: When a host on network A sends a message to a host on network B, which address does the router look at?

a. Physical

b. Logical

c. Port

d. None of these

 

Question 17: The maximum data rate in a communications system is given by its ______________.

a. bandwidth

b. throughput

c. latency

d. jitter

 

Question 18: Communication between a computer and a keyboard involves ______________ transmission.

a. simplex

b. half-duplex

c. full-duplex

d. automatic  

 

Question 19: The ______________ bit address is assigned to each host.

a. physical

b. IP

c. MAC

d. variable

 

Question 20: A television broadcast is an example of ______________ transmission.

a. Half-Duplex

b. Full-Duplex

c. Simplex

d. None of these

 

Question 21: The ______________ layer is responsible for moving frames from one node to the next.

a. physical

b. data link

c. transport

d. None of these

 

Question 22: In a ______________ connection, more than two devices can share a single link.

a. point-to-point

b. multipoint

c. primary

d. secondary

 

Question 23: The ______________ layer is responsible for the delivery of a message from one process to another.

a. physical

b. data link

c. transport

d. None of these

 

Question 24: The ______________ address is also known as the link address, or the address of a node as defined by its LAN or WAN.

a. IP

b. MAC

c. port

d. physical

 

Question 27: The seven-layer ______________ model provides guidelines for the development of universally compatible networking protocols.

a. OSI

b. ISO

c. IEEE

d. None of these  

 

Question 28: The physical, data link and network layers are the ______________ support layers.

a. user

b. network

c. both (a) and (b)

d. neither (a) nor (b)

 

Question 29: The session, presentation and application layers are the ______________ support layers.

a. user

b. network

c. both (a) and (b)

d. neither (a) nor (b)  

 

Question 30: The ______________ layer coordinates the functions required to transmit a bit stream over a physical medium.

a. transport

b. network

c. data link

d. physical  

 

Question 31: The ______________ layer is responsible for delivering data units from one station to the next without errors.

a. transport

b. network

c. data link

d. physical  

 

Question 32: The ______________ layer is responsible for the source-to-destination delivery of a packet across multiple network links.

a. transport

b. network

c. data link

d. physical  

 

Question 33: The ______________ layer establishes, maintains, and synchronizes the interactions between communicating devices.

a. transport

b. session

c. data link

d. physical

 

Question 34: The ______________ layer ensures interoperability between communicating devices through transformation of data into a mutually agreed upon format.

a. transport

b. session

c. data link

d. presentation  

 

Question 35: The ______________ layer enables the users to access the network.

a. transport

b. application

c. data link

d. physical

 

UNIT 3:  Web technology II

 

Question 1: Dynamic web page

a. is same every time whenever it displays

b. generates on demand by a program or a request from browser

c. both (a) and (b)

d. none of above  

 

Question 2: What will be the output of following JavaScript code

int a==2;

int b=4;

int ans=a+b;

print(ans);

a. 2

b. 6

c. 0

d. error

 

Question 3: Among the following, which one is a ternary operator?

a. +

b. :

c. -

d. ?:

 

Question 4: What will be the output of the following JavaScript code?

int a=0;

for(a;a<5;a++);

console.log(a);

a. 0

b. error

c. 4

d. 5

 

Question 5: Which one of the following is the correct way for calling the JavaScript code?

a. Preprocessor

b. Triggering Event

c. RMI

d. Function/Method

 

Question 6: Which one of the following symbols is used for creating comments in the JavaScript symbol?

a. \

b. //

c. /* */

d. \``  

 

Question 7: Which one of the following keywords is used for defining the function in the JavaScript?

a. Void

b. init

c. Main

d. Function  

 

Question 8: How do you focus a particular part of the HTML page in JavaScript?

a. hover()

b. focus()

c. on()

d. focuson()

 

Question 9: Which of the following can't be done with client-side JavaScript?

a. Validating a form

b. Sending a form's contents by email

c. Storing the form's contents to a database file on the server

d. None of the above  

 

Question 10: What is the correct JavaScript syntax to write "Hello World"?

a. System.out.println("Hello World")

b. println ("Hello World")

c. document.write("Hello World")

d. response.write("Hello World")  

 

Question 11: Inside which HTML element do we put the JavaScript?

a. <js>

b. <scripting>

c. <script>

d. <javascript>

 

Question 12: Which types of image maps can be used with JavaScript?

a. Server-side image maps

b. Client-side image maps

c. Server-side image maps and Client-side image maps

d. None of the above  

 

Question 13: Which of the following event fires when the form element loses the focus:

a. onfocus

b. onblur

c. onclick

d. ondblclick

 

Question 14: JavaScript is interpreted by

a. Client

b. Server

c. Object

d. None of the above

 

Question 15: What will be the output of following code:

<script type="text/javascript">

x=4+”4”;

document.write(x);

</script>

a. 44

b. 8

c. 4

d. Error output

 

Question 16: Choose the correct option.

a. HTML form elements are used for taking user input.

b. HTML form elements are defined inside <form> tag.

c. HTML form elements can be of different types.

d. All of these.  

 

Question 17: Which of the following tag is used for drop down list?

a. <select>

b. <text>

c. <textarea>

d. <dropdown>

 

Question 18: Correct HTML Tag For The Largest Heading Is

a. <heading>

b. <h6>

c. <h1>

d. <head>

 

Question 19: What Tag Is Used To Display A Picture In A HTML Page?

a. Picture

b. Img

c. Src

d. Image

 

Question 20: PHP Stands for?

a. Hypertex Processor

b. Hyper Markup Processor

c. Hyper Markup Preprocessor

d. Hypertext Preprocessor

 

Question 21: PHP is an example of ______________ scripting language.

a. Server-side

b. Client-side

c. Browser-side

d. In-side

 

Question 22: PHP scripts are enclosed within ______________.

a. <php> ... </php>

b. <?php ... ?>

c. <?php ... ?php

d. <p> ... </p>

 

Question 23: Which of the following method sends input to a script via a URL?

a. Get

b. Post

c. Both

d. None

 

Question 24: PHP files have a default file extension of

a. .html

b. .xml

c. .php

d. .ph

 

Question 25: Which of the following looping statements is/are supported by PHP?

i. for loop

ii. while loop

iii. do-while loop

iv. foreach loop

a. (i)

b. (i) and (ii)

c. (i), (ii) and (iii)

d. All of the mentioned

 

Question 26: Which of the following php statement is correct to store the value of num variable

i. int $num = 15;

ii. int num = 15;

iii. $num = 15;

iv. 111 = $num;

a. Both (i) and (ii)

b. All of the mentioned.

c. Only (iii)

d. Only (i)

 

Question 27: What will be the output of the following php code list?<?php$num = 1;$num1 = 2;print "$num"."+".$num1 ;?>

a. 3

b. 1+2

c. .+

d. ERROR

 

Question 28: When you use the $_GET variable to collect data, the data is visible to...

a. none

b. only you

c. everyone

d. selected few

 

Question 29: Which one of the following should not be used while sending passwords or other sensitive information?

a. GET

b. POST

c. REQUEST

d. NEXT

 

Question 30: Which one of the following databases has PHP supported almost since the beginning?

a. Oracle Database

b. SQL

c. SQL+

d. MySQL

 

Question 31: Which one of the following statements is used to create a table?

a. CREATE TABLE table_name (column_name column_type);

b. CREATE table_name (column_type column_name);

c. CREATE table_name (column_name column_type);

d. CREATE TABLE table_name (column_type column_name);

 

Question 32: Which one of the following statements instantiates the mysqli class?

a. $mysqli = new mysqli();

b. mysqli = new mysqli[];

c. $mysqli ->new mysqli();

d. mysqli ::new mysqli();

 

Question 33: Which one of the following statements can be used to select the database?

a. mysqli_select_db('databasename');

b. mysqli->select_db('databasename');

c. mysqli_select_db("databasename");

d. $mysqli->select_db("databasename");

 

Question 34: Which one of the following methods is responsible for sending the query to the database?

a. query();

b. send_query();

c. sendquery();

d. query_send();

 

Question 35: Which one of the following method is used to retrieve the number of rows affected by an INSERT, UPDATE, or DELETE query?

a. num_rows()

b. affected_rows()

c. changed_rows()

d. new_rows()

 

Question 36: The ______________ statement is used to delete a table.

a. DROP TABLE

b. DELETE TABLE

c. DEL TABLE

d. REMOVE TABLE

 

Question 37: What is the full form of SQL?

a. Structured Query List

b. Structured Query Language

c. Sample Query Language

d. None of these

 

Question 38: Which of the following is not a DDL command?

a. TRUNCATE

b. ALTER

c. CREATE

d. UPDATE

 

Question 39: How many Primary keys can have in a table?

a. Only 1

b. Only 2

c. Depends on no of Columns

d. Depends on DBA

 

Question 40: Which command is used to change the definition of a table in SQL?

a. CREATE

b. UPDATE

c. ALTER

d. SELECT

 

UNIT 4: Programming in C

 

Question 1: The format identifier '%i' is also used for ______________ data type.

a. char

b. int

c. float

d. double

Note: %i and %d are both used to print integers in C.

Question 2: Is it possible to run program without main() function?

a. yes

b. No

c. Yes but wrong output

d. sometimes

 

Question 3: How many main() function we can have in our project?

a. 1

b. 2

c. No limit

d. Depends on compiler

 

Question 4: What is the size of an int data type?

a. 4 Bytes

b. 8 Bytes

c. Depends on the system/compiler

d. Cannot be determined

 

Question 5: What is the output of the below code snippet?

#include <stdio.h>

main()

{

int x = 5, *p;

p = &x;

printf("%u", *p);

}

a. Address of x

b. Address of y

c. Address of p

d. 5

Note:   x = 5 → x holds the value 5.

  p = &x → p holds the address of x.

  *p → This dereferences the pointer, so it gives the value stored at the address p, which is 5.

 

Question 6: The prototype of a function can be used to,

a. Define a function

b. Declare a function

c. Erase a function

d. None of the above  

 

Question 7: Which of the following is a logical OR operator?

a. &

b. &&

c. ||

d. None of the above

 

Question 8: Register variable is ______________?

a. stored in CPU

b. stored in cache memory

c. stored in main memory

d. stored in secondary memory

 

Question 9: Automatic variables are stored in ______________.

a. stack

b. data segment

c. register

d. heap

 

Question 10: What is the format identifier for float data type

a. %d

b. %c

c. %f

d. %s

 

Question 11: Which of the following is true for the static variable?

a. It can be called from another function

b. It exists even after the function ends

c. It can be modified in another function by sending it as a parameter

d. All of the mentioned  

 

Question 12: Which of the following are collections of different data types?

a. String

b. Structures

c. Char

d. None of the above

 

Question 13: Union differs from structure in the following way

a. All members are used at a time

b. Only one member can be used at a time

c. Union cannot have more members

d. Union initialized all members as structure  

 

Question 14: A function which calls itself is called a ______________ function.

a. Self-Function

b. Auto Function

c. Recursive Function

d. Static Function  

 

Question 15: The data structure used to implement recursive function calls -

a. Array

b. Linked list

c. Binary tree

d. Stack

 

Question 16: The default parameter passing mechanism is

a. call by value

b. call by reference

c. call by value result

d. None

 

Question 17: How many times "Hello" is printed?

int main()

{

while(1)

{

printf("Hello");

}}

a. 1 time

b. Compilation Error

c. Infinite times

d. Runtime Error

 

Question 18: A pointer is:

a. A variable that stores addresses of an instruction

b. A variable that stores address of another variable

c. A keyword used to create variables

d. None of these

 

Question 19: Is the NULL pointer same as an uninitialized pointer?

a. Yes

b. No

c. May Be

d. Can't Say

Note: A NULL pointer is a specific value (typically 0 or a macro that evaluates to 0) that indicates the pointer does not point to a valid memory location. An uninitialized pointer contains an indeterminate (garbage) address. They are not the same.

Question 20: Size of a union is determined by size of the.

a. First member in the union

b. Last member in the union

c. Sum of the sizes of all members

d. Biggest member in the union

 

Question 21: If there is any error while opening a file, fopen will return?

a. Nothing

b. EOF

c. NULL

d. Depends on compiler

 

Question 22: It is not possible to combine two or more file opening mode in fopen () method.

a. TRUE

b. FALSE

c. May Be

d. Can't Say

Note: It is possible to combine certain file opening modes (e.g., "r+" for reading and writing, "wb" for writing in binary). Therefore, the statement is FALSE.

Question 23: What is the function of the mode "w+"?

a. create text file for writing, discard previous contents if any

b. create text file for update, discard previous contents if any

c. create text file for writing, do not discard previous contents if any

d. create text file for update, do not discard previous contents if any  

Note: The mode "w+" opens a text file for both reading and writing. If the file exists, its contents are truncated (discarded). If the file does not exist, it is created. So, 'b' is the most accurate description among the options, as "update" implies both read and write capabilities. Option 'a' is close but doesn't explicitly mention reading.

Question 24: If the mode includes b after the initial letter, what does it indicates?

a. text file

b. big text file

c. binary file

d. blueprint text  

 

Question 25: What is the function of fputs()?

a. read a line from a file

b. read a character from a file

c. write a character to a file

d. write a line to a file  

Note: The fputs() function in C is used to write a string (a line of text) to a file stream.

Question 26: scanf() is a predefined function in ______________ header file.

a. stdlib.h

b. ctype.h

c. stdio.h

d. math.h

 

Question 27: What is the meaning of the following C statement?

scanf("%[^\n]", ch);

a. read all character except new line

b. read all characters

c. read only new line character

d. syntax error

 

Question 28: What is the following is invalid header file in C?

a. math.h

b. mathio.h

c. string.h

d. ctype.h

 

Question 29: Library function getch() belongs to which header file?

a. stdio.h

b. conio.h

c. stdlib.h

d. stdlib.io.h

 

Question 30: Library function pow() belongs to which header file?

a. mathio.h

b. math.h

c. square.h

d. stdio.h

Note: The pow() function (for calculating powers) is part of the standard C math library and is declared in the math.h header file.

Question 31: What is storage class for variable A in below code?

int main()

{

int A;

A = 10;

printf("%d", A);

return 0;

}

a. extern

b. auto

c. register

d. static

Note: When a local variable is declared inside a function without any explicit storage class specifier, its storage class is auto by default. This means its lifetime is limited to the function's execution, and it's stored on the stack.

Question 32: Can we declare function inside structure of C Programming?

a. Yes

b. No

c. Depends on compiler

d. Yes but runtime error

Note: In standard C, you cannot directly declare functions inside the definition of a struct. This is a feature of object-oriented languages like C++.

Question 33: What is the C function used to move current pointer to the beginning of file.?

FILE *fp;

a. rew(fp)

b. rewind(fp)

c. rew(fp)

d. wind(fp)

 

Question 34: What is the keyword used to declare a C file pointer?

a. file

b. FILE

c. FILEFP

d. filefp

 

Question 35: Where is a file temporarily stored before read or write operation?

a. Notepad

b. RAM

c. Hard disk

d. compiler

 

Question 36: What is the need for closing a file in C language.?

a. fclose() closes a file to release the memory used in opening a file.

b. Closing a file clears Buffer contents from RAM or memory.

c. Unclosed files occupy memory and PC hangs when on low memory.

d. All the above  

 

Question 37: If a FILE pointer is NULL what does it mean for the following code?

FILE *fp;

fp=fopen("abc.txt", "w");

a. Unable to open a file named abc.txt

b. abc.txt is not available on disk

c. Hard disk has hard ware problems.

d. All the above  

 

Question 38: A data of the file is stored in........

a. Ram

b. Hard disk

c. Rom

d. None

 

Question 39: The content of the file will be lost if it is opened in ........

a. a mode

b. w mode

c. r mode

d. a+ mode

Note: When a file is opened in "w" (write) mode, if the file exists, its contents are truncated (deleted). If it doesn't exist, a new empty file is created. Therefore, opening a file in "w" mode will lead to the loss of its original content.

Question 40: For a direct access file

a. there are restrictions on the order of reading and writing

b. there are no restrictions on the order of reading and writing

c. access is restricted permission wise

d. access is not restricted permission wise  

 

UNIT 5: Object- Oriented Programming (OOP)

 

Question 1: Which of the following best defines a class?

a. Parent of an object

b. Instance of an object

c. Blueprint of an object

d. Scope of an object  

 

Question 2: What is the additional functional feature in classes that was not in structures?

a. Data members

b. Member functions

c. Static data allowed

d. Public access specifier  

 

Question 3: Which is not feature of OOP in general definitions?

a. Code reusability

b. Encapsulation

c. Duplicate/Redundant data

d. Efficient Code

 

Question 4: Which Feature of OOP illustrated the code reusability?

a. Polymorphism

b. Abstraction

c. Encapsulation

d. Inheritance

 

Question 5: How many classes can be defined in a single program?

a. Only 1

b. Only 100

c. Only 999

d. As many as you want

 

Question 6: Which of the following two features match each other?

a. Inheritance and Encapsulation

b. Encapsulation and Polymorphism

c. Abstraction and Polymorphism

d. Abstraction and Encapsulation

 

Question 7: Which among the following best describes polymorphism?

a. It is the ability for a message/data to be processed in more than one form

b. It is the ability for a message/data to be processed in only 1 form

c. It is the ability for many messages/data to be processed in one way

d. It is the ability for undefined message/data to be processed in at least one way  

 

Question 8: If same message is passed to objects of several different classes and all of those can respond in a different way, what is this feature called?

a. Inheritance

b. Overriding

c. Polymorphism

d. Overloading  

 

Question 9: Which among the following best describes encapsulation?

a. It is a way of combining various member functions into a single unit

b. It is a way of combining various data members and member functions into a single unit

c. It is a way of combining various data members and member functions into a single unit which can operate on any data

d. It is a way of combining various data members and member functions that operate on those data members into a single unit  

 

Question 10: Which feature can be implemented using encapsulation?

a. Inheritance

b. Abstraction

c. Polymorphism

d. Overloading

 

Question 11: Using encapsulation data security is

a. Not ensured

b. Ensured to some extent

c. Entirely ensured

d. Very low

 

Question 12: Which definition best describes an object?

a. Instance of a class

b. Instance of itself

c. Child of a class

d. Overview of a class  

 

Comment: An object is a specific instance of a class, created in memory. 'a' is the correct answer.

Question 13: Which among the following best defines abstraction?

a. Hiding the implementation

b. Showing the important data

c. Hiding the important data

d. Hiding the implementation and showing only the features  

 

Question 14: Class is a ______________ abstraction.

a. Object

b. Logical

c. Real

d. Hypothetical

 

Question 15: Which feature of OOP indicates code reusability?

a. Encapsulation

b. Inheritance

c. Abstraction

d. Polymorphism

 

Question 16: Which among the following defines single level inheritance?

a. One base class derives another class

b. One derived class inherits from one base class

c. One base class inherits from one derived class

d. One derived class derives from another derived class  

 

Question 17: Which among the following defines multilevel inheritance?

a. A class derived from another derived class

b. Classes derived from other derived classes

c. Creating single level inheritance

d. Class which has more than one parent

 

UNIT 6: Software Process Model

 

Question 1: Which of the following are valid step in SDLC a framework?

a. Requirement Gathering

b. System Analysis

c. Software Design

d. All of the above

 

Question 2: The goal of requirement engineering is to develop and maintain sophisticated and descriptive ______________ document.

a. Feasibility Study

b. Requirement Gathering

c. Software Requirement Validation

d. System Requirements Specification  

 

Question 3: It is the process in which developers discuss with the client and end users and know their expectations from the software.

a. Requirements gathering

b. Organizing Requirements

c. Negotiation & discussion

d. Documentation  

  

Question 5: Which one is not considered during Technical Feasibility?

a. Expandability

b. Existence of technology

c. Suitability of technology

d. Human resource to use the technology  

 

Question 6: Which of the following is an example of Black Box and Functional Processing?

a. First Generation Language

b. Second Generation Language

c. Third Generation Language

d. Fourth Generation Language  

 

Question 7: System study involves

a. study of an existing system

b. documenting the existing system

c. identifying current deficiencies and establishing new goals

d. All of the above  

 

Question 8: Feasibility study is carried out by

a. managers of the organization

b. system analyst in consultation with managers of the organization

c. users of the proposed system

d. systems designers in consultation with the prospective users of the system  

 

Question 9: Final specifications are drawn up by

a. system analyst in consultation with the management of the organization

b. the managers of user organization

c. system analyst in consultation with programmers

d. system designers along with users  

 

Question 10: The final specifications are arrived at:

a. After feasibility study

b. during feasibility study

c. just before implementation phase

d. when the system is being designed  

 

Question 11: System design is carried out:

a. as soon as system requirements are determined

b. whenever a system analyst feels it is urgent

c. after final system specifications is approved by the organization

d. whenever the user management feels it should be done  

 

Question 12: The primary objective of system design is to

a. design the programs, databases and test plan

b. design only user interfaces

c. implements the system

d. finds out how the system will perform  

 

Question 13: The primary objective of system implementation is

a. to train users to operate the system

b. to implement designed system using computers

c. writes programs, create databases and test with live data

d. both a and c

 

Question 14: During system implementation the following are done

a. programs are written and tested with operational data

b. user documentation is created and users trained

c. the system is tested with operational data

d. All of the above

 

15. System evaluation is carried out

a. after the system has been operational for a reasonable time

b. during system implementation

c. whenever managers of user organization want it

d. whenever operational staff want it

 

16. Systems are modified whenever

a. user's requirements change

b. new computers are introduced in the market

c. new software tools become available in the market

d. other similar organization modify these system

 

17. System analysts have to interact with

a. managers of organizations

b. users in the organization

c. programming team

d. all of the above

 

18. The primary responsibility of a systems analyst is to

a. specify an information system which meets the requirements of an organization

b. write programs to meet specifications

c. maintain the system

d. meet managers of the organization regularly

 

19. The responsibilities of a system analyst include

a. defining and prioritizing information requirement of an organization

b. gathering data, facts and opinions of users in an organization

c. drawing up specifications of the system for an organization

d. all of the above

 

20. The most important attribute of a systems analyst is

a. excellent programming skills

b. very good hardware designing skills

c. very good technical management skills

d. very good writing skills

 

21. Among the attributes of a good systems analyst the following are essential

a. knowledge of organization

b. analytical mind

c. ability to communicate orally

d. all of the above

 

22. Among the attributes of a systems analyst the following are most important

a. knowledge of computer systems and currently available hardware

b. good interpersonal relations

c. broad knowledge about various organizations

d. All of the above

 

23. Changes made periodically to a system, after its implementation, is known as system

a. analysis

b. design

c. development

d. maintenance

 

24. During what phase, the requirement analysis is performed?

a. system design phase

b. system development phase

c. system analysis phase

d. system investigation phase

 

25. A feasibility study

a. includes a statement of the problems

b. considers a single solution

c. both (a) and (b)

d. a list of alternative solution considered

 

26. The make-or-buy decision is associated with the _________ step in the SDLC.

a. Problem/Opportunity Identification

b. Design

c. Analysis

d. Development and Documentation

 

27. Actual programming of software code is done during the _________ step in the SDLC.

a. Maintenance and Evaluation

b. Design

c. Analysis

d. Development and Documentation

 

28. The main ingredient of the report documenting the _________ is the cost benefit analysis.

a. System Analysis

b. Feasibility Study

c. System Design

d. System Design

 

UNIT 7: Recent Trends in Technology

 

1. Artificial Intelligence is about _________.

a. Playing a game on Computer

b. Making a machine intelligent

c. Programming on Machine with your Own Intelligence

d. Putting your intelligence in Machine  

 

2. The application/applications of Artificial Intelligence is/are:

a. Expert Systems

b. Gaming

c. Vision Systems

d. All of the above  

 

3. The main function of problem-solving agent is to _________.

a. Solve the given problem and reach the goal

b. Find out which sequence of action will get it to the goal state.

c. Both a & b

d. None of the above  

 

4. The characteristics of the computer system capable of thinking, reasoning and learning is known is:

a. machine intelligence

b. human intelligence

c. artificial intelligence

d. virtual intelligence

 

5. What is the name of the computer program that simulates the thought processes of human beings?

a. Human logic

b. Expert reason

c. Expert system

d. Personal information  

 

6. What type of computing technology refers to services and applications that typically run on a distributed network through virtualized resources?

a. Distributed Computing

b. Cloud Computing

c. Soft Computing

d. Parallel Computing  

 

7. Cloud computing is a kind of abstraction which is based on the notion of combining physical resources and represents them as _________ resources to users.

a. Real

c. Virtual

b. Cloud

d. None of the mentioned  

 

8. Which one of the following cloud concepts is related to sharing and pooling the resources?

a. Polymorphism

b. Virtualization

c. Abstraction

d. None of the mentioned  

 

9. Which one of the following is Cloud Platform by Amazon?

a. Azure

b. AWS (Amazon Web Services)

c. Cloudera

d. All of the above

 

10. …………. is a combination of structured, semi structured and unstructured data collected by organizations that can be mined for information and used in machine learning projects, predictive modeling and other advanced analytics applications.

a. Small data

b. Medium data

c. Big data

d. None of the above  

 

11. How many V's of Big Data:

a. 2

b. 3

c. 4

d. 5

 

12. It is a mediated environment which creates the sensation in a user of being present in a (physical) surrounding.

a. WWW

b. VR (Virtual Reality)

c. HMD

d. GUI  

 

13. Which of the following describes e-commerce?

a. Doing business electronically

b. Doing business

c. Sale of goods

d. All of the above  

 

14. Which of the following is part of the four main types of e-commerce?

a. B2B

b. B2C

c. C2B

d. All of the above

 

15. Which segment do eBay, Amazon belong?

a. B2B

b. B2C

c. C2B

d. C2C

 

16. ________ is the use of information and communication technology to provide, enhance or speed up health care services by accessing linking clinics or physicians' offices to central hospitals.

a. e-commerce

b. e-governance

c. e-medicine

d. All of the above

 

17. ________ is the use of Information and Communications Technologies to transform the traditional government by making it easily accessible, transparent, effective and accountable to the general people

a. e-commerce

b. e-governance

c. e-medicine

d. All of the above

 

18. ________ is a technology that allows transmission of data, voice and video via a computer or any other wireless enabled device without having to be connected to a fixed physical link.

a. Cloud Computing

b. Mobile Computing

c. e-medicine

d. None of the above  

 

19. Which of the following is the way in which an IoT device is associated with data?

a. Internet

b. Cloud

c. Automata

d. Network  

 

20. An IoT network is a collection of ________ devices.

a. Signal

b. Machine to Machine

c. Interconnected

d. Network to Network

 

21. Which of the following is not an application of IoT?

a. Arduino

b. Smart Home

c. Smart Car

d. All of the above